Re: accents

[SamWeiss <SamWeiss...>]

At 05:18 PM 4/18/02, I. Oppenheim wrote:
>On Thu, 18 Apr 2002, Robert Cohen wrote:
>
> > Could you give some (i.e., specific) examples that
> > are actually encountered in liturgy where changing
> > the accent changes meaning and/or tense?
>
>I quote from my last mail on this topic:
>
><<Changing the stress, can change the meaning of a word
>in Hebrew. To give an example from the Shema prayer:
>
>ve-no-sa-TI or ve-na-ta-TI means "I will give," while:
>ve-no-SA-ti or ve-na-TA-ti means "and I have given."
>
>ve-o-hav-TO or ve-a-hav-TA means "you must love,"
>while:
>ve-o-HAV-to or ve-a-HAV-ta means "and you loved.">>

Continuing the original discussion...

In analyzing Ashkenazic liturgical pronunciation from a strictly linguistic 
point of view, i.e. without prior presumption of what is "proper", one 
would have to find examples of where a shift in stress does indeed change 
the meaning or tense of the word =within the Ashkenazic system= before 
stating that this or that stress is "wrong".  The fact of the matter is 
that within this system syllabic stress no longer serves the grammatical 
function of signifying stress, so that everyone -- for example -- can sing 
merrily in the Grace After Meals
<<v'o-CHAL-to v'so-VO-to u-veyRACH-to...>>
while leaving no doubt that the future tense is intended:
<<and you shall eat and be satisfied and bless...>>


_____________________________________________________________
Cantor Sam Weiss === Jewish Community Center of Paramus, NJ

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