[HANASHIR:16236] RE: A transliteration problem

[Eric Komar <eric...>]

Burton,

The vowel in question *is* technically a diphthong: the Hebrew vowel tzeirei
(two dots side by side). I've seen it transliterated ei", "ey", and "ay".
"Ey" is probably the most accurate, since the tzeirei is sometimes followed
by a yod. The "eh" notation probably reflects the Israeli pronunciation of
the tzeirei when it's not followed by yod, but one wouldn't want to use this
because it could conflict with the transliteration of the vowel segol (three
dots in a triangle).

The Reform Movement has a standardized transliteration system, which uses
"ei" for tzeirei, "ai" for kamatz/patach + yod, etc. This system is used in
UAHC/URJ publications, including Transcontinental Music.

Hope this helps. Shabbat Shalom and Chag Sameiach.
-Eric



Eric Komar . KomarMusic . 718.344.0440 . www.KomarMusic.com
Jewish Music Specialist . Songleader . Composer/Arranger . Music
Typesetting/Transcription . Guitar Lessons
"Notes From the Underground" CD now available!!!




-----Original Message-----
From: owner-hanashir (at) shamash(dot)org [mailto:owner-hanashir (at) 
shamash(dot)org]On
Behalf Of Burton A. Zipser
Sent: Friday, December 19, 2003 8:34 PM
To: hanashir (at) shamash(dot)org
Subject: [HANASHIR:16235] A transliteration problem


Chaverim:
        I have an interesting question and I hope that some of you
may be able to offer an answer or at least point me in the right
direction.
        A non-Jewish acquaintance asked me about the proper way to
pronounce Hebrew words which had been transliterated.  He understood
most of the standard ways to pronounce Hebrew sounds except for the
second syllable in the word "Shireinu".
        In checking into older published compositions, it seems that
prior to 1950 there were many different ways of converting Hebrew
sounds into English.  The "ei" sound, for example, appeared as an "e"
by itself, or as an "eh" conversion.
        Since the letters "ei" might imply that a diphthong (a letter
with two sounds, such as the vowels "A", "I", and "O", which are
spoken and sung as if they were "ay-ee", "ah-ee", and "aw-oo"), in
which instance the "i" of "ei" might be regarded as the second half
of the diphthong "A" in which the last sound ("I") is pronounced as
if it were the Italian "I" which is actually pronounced "ee".
        The logical question then is, if the original Hebrew sound is
not a diphthong, why isn't the transliteration "ay" as is used in
such English words as "bay, hay, say, or way"?  Would not a better
transliteration be "Shiraynu"?
        I will be most appreciative of any answers you may offer.
                                Burton Zipser