Re: Music of the Ancient Temple speculations.

[Karen Harker <Karen.Harker...>]

The question of the use of harmonies may depend on what was considered 
"pleasant" to hear.  Perhaps the dissonance of harmonics may have been so 
noticeable that it was not pleasant to those untrained ears.

Karen

>>> pinnolis (at) brandeis(dot)edu 3/21/00 12:34:29 PM >>>
<SNIP>
My question has not been on chant, but I always wondered why the ancients
didn't create *harmonies* in the ancient temple with all those instruments
and voices at their disposal!-- Supposedly the Christians in Europe were
the first to do that too.--  So many scholars say they didn't use *any*
harmony... but I've always questioned that. Can that really be true that
the ancient Jews *always* used only one melodic line and never harmonized?
What do you think? With differing voices and instruments and tuning? Even
using a dozen harps, were they all tuned exactly the same in reality?

But I would love to learn more from you and others. Again, it has been a
while since I've delved into this ..... But that's all for today.
Judy

At 07:04 AM 3/21/00 -0500, you wrote:
>Bob,
>
>I'd be willing to guess by the way it sounds that these notes are pretty
>consistent with my previous comments.  Note first Dobsay's note that the
>books themselves were *read,* which he then contrasts with *chanting* of
>non-biblical passages (with or without text; he is not clear here) inserted
>as "music" into the ritual.  Dobsay then says how portions of the scripture
>were set to chant (he doesn't exactly say that, but his use of
>"responsories" deserves the benefit of the doubt) and then interspersed
>through an earlier service.  Chances are, this probably not include the
>whole text.  You'll also note that his last line discusses the "musical
>cycles *to* every book of the Bible," rather than "musical cycles *of* every
>book of the Bible."  From my reading, there's no implication here that the
>entirely of each book of the Bible was set to chant, and less that it was
>compiled into a codex of itself.  Rather, the *ritual surrounding the
>reading* was set.  This was certainly common practice back then (many, many
>Gregorian chant codices are arranged according to the liturgical calendar),
>and remains a practice in several Christian denominations (though the music
>may now be exclusively Gregorian chant today).
>
>Again, I may be taking things out of context; plase let me know what you
>think of this interpretation.
>
>Be well.
>Judah.
>
>----------
>>From: "robert wiener" <wiener (at) mindspring(dot)com>
>>To: World music from a Jewish slant <jewish-music (at) shamash(dot)org>
>>Subject: Re: "Songs to the Invisible God" review...
>>Date: Tue, Mar 21, 2000, 12:31 AM
>>
>
>> Judah,
>>
>> I wonder how your comments on Gregorian chant and books of the Bible
>> relates to the following excerpt from notes by Laszlo Dobsay to the
>> Schola Hungarica recordings subtitled " : Repons Gregoriens sur les
>> Textes de La Genese/de La Bible"?
>>
>> "In the Christian liturgy the books of Genesis and Exodus were read in
>> the offices during the months of February and March.  From time to
>> time the recitation was interrupted by chanting in order to lend the
>> sustenance of music to the meditation.  In the "responsories" for
>> Matins the libretto was drawn from the book of the scriptures that had
>> just been read; in this way comprehensive musical cycles to every book
>> in the Bible came into existence..."
>>
>> Bob
>> 
>
>
>

Judith S. Pinnolis
Reference Librarian,
Coordinator for Publications and Training
Brandeis University Libraries
P.O Box 9110  MS045
415 South Street                                
Waltham, MA 02454-9110
phone:781-736-4705
fax: 781-736-4719
email: pinnolis (at) brandeis(dot)edu 



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