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Re: Fw: Shabbat Weddings?
- From: Ari Davidow <ari...>
- Subject: Re: Fw: Shabbat Weddings?
- Date: Mon 08 May 2000 21.03 (GMT)
Moshe,
Time and place are quite essential for your statement to have any validity.
As early as the nineteenth century would wealth assimilated Jews in many
German towns and cities be able to do as the query suggested? Most readings
would suggest yes, and that they would have been eager to cut such corners.
Were there non-Jewish musicians who knew Jewish tunes? Again, any study
of what we know of the musics (I suggest Zev Feldman's articles as starting
points) is quite emphatic on the "yes."
If you have specific cites that suggest that your questions have a non-
faith-based grounding, I will happily reconsider, but based on both the
history of the so-called "haskala" and upper class Jewish assimilation
into German culture, on the one hand, and the messier, goes back many
hundreds of years associations between musicians on the other, I do
not understand your claims.
ari
At 07:29 PM 5/8/00 +0100, you wrote:
>
>>On 8 May 2000 19:07, Ari Davidow <ari (at) ivritype(dot)com> wrote:
>>
>>
>>>Or would not have been in any way considered "common practice" (much less
>>>"conceivable practice") among the religious community. But, in cities, for
>>>instance, to what degree of the Jewish community does that speak? City
>>>Jews who considered themselves assimilated, for instance, might have been
>>>impatient at the strictures imposed by Jewish musicians following halacha,
>>>and might not have felt bound by same.
>
>
>As we're talking about the 19th Century and earlier, the scenario
>in both the shtetl and the shtot would still have been much the
>same. It was not only a question of observing the Halacha, but
>also respect for it and for other people.
>
>We could consider a possible (though not probable) exception - a
>Reform Judaism community in, say Germany, in the second half of
>the 19th Century. Being "reform", they would already have changed
>their practice of Jewish law, and so, there would have been no
>need for them to go through the sham of employing a Shades Goy;
>they could've employed other non - observant musicians within their
>own community.
>
>Then there's another question:
>
>Were there readily available non - Jewish musicians who were
>sufficiently knowledgable of the type of music Jews in that
>community preferred/ expected at their marriage celebrations? Again,
>probably not.
>
>
>
Ari Davidow
ari (at) ivritype(dot)com
http://www.ivritype.com/
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