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[HANASHIR:10338] Re: pronunciation leeway?
- From: Dr. Alan Mason <dralanmason...>
- Subject: [HANASHIR:10338] Re: pronunciation leeway?
- Date: Tue 20 Nov 2001 14.32 (GMT)
With my training as a classical vocal accompanist, I know that accents fall
where the RHYTHM mandates, and have little to do with the decorative design
of the melody. In the structure of music, melody is considered "ornamental"
and rhythm is considered "fundamental." So the lyrics or text must go along
with the stresses of the rhythm, rather than the usual accenting of a
syllable in a word.
Alan Mason
Doctor of Musical Arts
Pi Kappa Lambda
----Original Message Follows----
From: "H & R Shubert" <notfranz (at) total(dot)net>
Reply-To: hanashir (at) shamash(dot)org
To: "Hanashir" <hanashir (at) shamash(dot)org>
Subject: [HANASHIR:10337] pronunciation leeway?
Date: Tue, 20 Nov 2001 09:16:11 -0500
Thanks Erik, for the concise explanation of Hebrew accents. Looking at how
words fit into melodies, I notice ADOnai (in Adon Olam, Silverman's Mi
Chamocha), CHAYim (in Etz Chayim Hi),t'HOrah (in Debbie's Elohai Neshama),
b'AM'cha (in Richards' R'tzei). In none of these cases is the metteg on the
accented syllable. My question is: is there some acceptable leeway in
accenting syllables to fit melodies?
Thanks,
Rachelle
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- [HANASHIR:10338] Re: pronunciation leeway?,
Dr. Alan Mason